Supervision of collective bargaining

______1.Which of the following is NOT, in most cases, a tool of executive leadership?
A. Personnel Management
B. Reorganization
C. Amending legislation
D. Control over information and sometimes, budget

______2.True or False, the supervision of collective bargaining differs by state and can be conducted by an agency created for that purpose, a personnel dept, a department of labor, or a personnel board.

A. True
B. False

______3.The Office of Management and Budgeting is responsible for which of the following?
A. Hiring employees
B. Central clearance of rules and policy proposals
C. Granting pay raises and benefits
D. Establishing sources of Federal revenue

______4.True or False, most governors have a line item veto
A. True
B. False

______5.Within a hierarchy, there is a constant routine and an executive likely gets involved only during irregular times or a crisis. This is called:
A. Extenuating circumstances
B. Exception Principle
C. Executive Privilege
D. Executive extension

______6.What leadership instrument available to the president and most governors is particularly useful as a source of budgetary influence?
A. Information resources
B. Veto power
C. Personnel selection
D. All of the above

______7.All of the following are existing constraints upon gubernatorial leadership except
A. Constitutional earmarking of funds.
B. Shared authority in filling executive posts.
C. Limits on the number and length of terms in office.
D. Restrictions on partisan activity while in office.

______8.Executive branch reorganizations matter most in terms of the distribution of influence, the flow of communication, and the course of policy—not economy and efficiency.
A. True
B. False

______9.All the following standard reorganization strategies promote the centralization of authority in the executive branch except
A. Grouping related functions under a common command.
B. Expanding opportunities for public participation in the administrative process.
C. Increasing the number of executive staff positions.
D. Limiting the number of subordinates under each executive.

______10. Which of the following organizations is responsible for hiring 90% of federal executive employees?
A. Office of Management and Budget
B. Federal Labor Relations Authority
C. Office of Personnel Management
D. National Labor Relations Board

______11.In order to fill positions and provide interagency mobility, agencies can make positions less specialized. This is called:
A. Redefining
B. Rebranding
C. Broadbanding
D. reclassification

______12.Which group makes up the majority of unionized public servants
A. City and county firefighters
B. Local teachers
C. State public welfare workers
D. Local hospital workers
E. All of the above

______13.Bureaucratic types that Downs labeled “climbers” and “conservers” are more concerned with the goals of the organization or the public interest rather than their own self-interest.
A. True
B. False

______14.Affirmative action has been criticized as its own version of discrimination. For what reason can the government give preference for demographic features over others?
A. Diversity
B. Fairness
C. Compelling state interest
D. Direct reparations

______15.Which of the following is not a challenge to Public Personnel Management?
A. The Pay gap between public employees and those in the private sector
B. A pension bubble
C. The lack of veteran employment
D. The fact that job vacancies outnumber applicants

______16.Which of the following is the smallest portion of the federal budget?
A. Defense spending
B. Non-defense discretionary spending
C. Social security
D. Medicare and Medicaid

______17.Which of the following does not substantially contribute to federal revenue?
A. Individual taxes
B. Corporate taxes
C. Payroll (social insurance) taxes
D. Tariffs

______18.Which budgetary approach requires the budget agency to adopt a policy role, is characterized by a systematic policy-making style, and has a scope that includes inputs, outputs, effects, and alternatives?
A. Incremental budget making
B. Line-item budgeting
C. Performance budgeting
D. Planning-programming budgeting (PPB)
E. Zero-base budgeting (ZBB)

______19.Which of the following is the last step of the budgeting process within a single cycle?
A. Execution
B. Audit
C. Appropriations
D. Authorization

______20.Budget examiners, who hold hearings on specific agency budgets, work for which institution?
A. Congressional Budget Office
B. Office of Management and Budgeting
C. Government Accountability Office
D. A private entity
______21.Which is not a fiscal policy tool?
A. Government expenditures
B. Tax policy
C. Regulating the money supply
D. Tax deductions
E. Taxation

______22.An agency directly involved in administering monetary policy is the
A. Federal Reserve Board.
B. General Accounting Office.
C. Office of Management and Budget.
D. None of the above.

______23. Which type of policy has concentrated costs but diffuse benefits (a select few pay and most people benefit)?
A. Distributive
B. Redistributive
C. Regulatory
D. Legislative

______24.Which of the following is not a negative aspect of privatization
A. No-bid contracts
B. Lack of transparency
C. Provision of immediate capital to local projects
D. Lack of accountability

______25.Specific, measurable goals for an organization are called
A. Values
B. Operational goals
C. Beliefs
D. Job actions

______26.A management device that involves mapping out a sequence of programs based on the most cost efficient options is
A. Performance evaluation review technique.
B. Management by objectives.
C. Critical path method.
D. Strategic analysis.

______27.Which program evaluation design would be best if we were evaluating a program that sought to reduce the rate of population growth in Texas over the next 10 years?
A. Controlled experimentation
B. Before-versus-after program comparison
C. Time-trend projection of preprogram data versus actual post program data
D. All of the above

______28.The problem(s) associated with program implementation of public policy is (are)
A. Legislators often are unable to identify all the implications of their enactments.
B. Danger of co-optation between program managers and outside agencies or external forces.
C. Having to settle for the best available compromise rather than the best possible outcome.
D. Constant political pressure on agencies responsible for implementing congressional directions.
E. All of the above.

______29.Benchmarking can be defined as
A. Examining the best practices of successful organizations and then transplanting them into one’s own organization.
B. Standardizing a particular process for all organizations.
C. All of the above.
D. None of the above.

______30.Principle(s) used during the reinvent government era is (are)
A. Commitment to meeting customer-driven standards.
B. Actions based on data, statistical analysis, facts, and outcome measures.
C. Organizational changes and teamwork to encourage implementation.
D. All of the above.

______31.All the following government services are difficult to measure except
A. Police and fire protection.
B. Routine sanitation functions.
C. Emergency management.
D. Homeland security.

______32.The Malcolm Baldrige National Quality Award is given to
A. Bureaucrat of the year
B. The state with the least business regulations
C. A public or private organization that has shown quality improvement
D. The National Center for Public Performance

______33.President Clinton issued Executive Order 12862 in 1997 that mandated all federal agencies identify their customers and establish service standards and means to achieve them.
A. True
B. false

______34.Which of the following is a dependent regulatory agency (DRA)?
A. FCC
B. FDA
C. ICC
D. FTC

______35.The case of Goldberg v. Kelly dealt with a perceived violation of
A. substantive rules.
B. procedural rules.
C. interpretive rules.
D. substantive justice.

______36.Though regulatory entities sometimes operate in a quasi-judicial fashion, they have one power that the courts lack, which is
A. power to issue advisory opinions.
B. power to issue injunctions.
C. power to determine enforceable penalties.
D. none of the above.

______37.The principal focus of administrative law is
A. discretionary justice.
B. values and ethics-centered.
C. on rules and regulations set by administrative agencies.
D. limited to quasi-judicial cases determined by the Supreme Court.

______38.The consumer movement contributed substantially to the rise of national government regulation during the 1960s and 1970s; however, some change is evident in public sentiments, which have become less supportive of regulatory action.
A. True
B. false

______39.True or False, commissioners on Independent Regulatory Agencies serve during the same 4 years as the president that appointed them
A. True
B. False

______40. Which of the following a true about budgeting
A. It is a statement of financial intent based on anticipated income and expenditures
B. It indicates programmatic intent
C. It is a means of controlling bureaucracy, shaping agency programs
D. All of the above

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